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#1
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Hello
I am new on this. I have read a couple of small basic manuals about Forex. Yesterday i found a series of lessons in a known forex site. An example on margin calculation called my atention- I am transcribing it: __________________________________________________ __ Let’s take a trader with $1,000 in his account, which is his total balance or equity. Our trader buys 1 Lot of EUR/USD at a price of 1.2750 with the 400:1 maximum leverage. The trader’s utilized margin is $250 and he or she has $750 of floating equity or unused margin. __________________________________________________ __ There are some issues in this example that didnt leave me sleep last night. My books say the base currency on a trade is the first appearing on the pair's name. Euro in this example, and a lot is equal to $100,000 [base units]. Then this trader is buying $100,000 [Euros]. Without leverage he or she would have to pay $1.2750 [USD] for each Euro, or 1.2750 x 100,000 = $127,500 [USD] for 1[Euro] lot But, since the leverage is 400:1 the trader will have to pay 127,500 [USD] / 400 = $318.75 [USD] for the lot Then, in my opinion, the used margin for this trader is $318.75 [USD], However the web page says the trader is using only $250 [USD] margin. It seems they made the margin calculations using the counter currency, [USD] in this case, and not the base currency. Is it a right way to do this?. Why is USD used for the calculations.... because it is the currency the trader has his account?, or just because it is US Dollar, the most important currency in the international currencies market? I will appreciate any explanation on this example, and suggestions of books or web tutorials with more practical examples like this one, since the manual i have read doesnt have any example. Thank you in advance. Pacho |
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#3
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Yes, your assumptions and calculations are correct.
My only thought: Some broker-dealers now only allow 50% of your total account margin to be used as tradable margin. If so, it may technically change your leverage ratio.
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